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Originally Posted by yorkietalkjilly  But unless the woman can demonstrate somehow or prove some type of threat that kept her from resisting or being too afraid to say no or otherwise indicate she did not want intercourse, in this case, how was the man to know she wasn't consenting unless the law now requires her verbal/written consent. Otherwise, couldn't the man say her consent was implied by the lack of resistance/negative verbal/physical indicators? |
That's what I was wondering too. I know of one case where the guy was stupid enough to say, he didn't want to see the girl again, and it was just a one night stand, and because the girl’s friends knew she was going out with a well-known man, she yelled rape instead of saying she consented and was humiliated, or at least that's my take of the Tyson case.