But unless the woman can demonstrate somehow or prove some type of threat that kept her from resisting or being too afraid to say no or otherwise indicate she did not want intercourse, in this case, how was the man to know she wasn't consenting unless the law now requires her verbal/written consent. Otherwise, couldn't the man say her consent was implied by the lack of resistance/negative verbal/physical indicators?
__________________  Jeanie and Tibbe One must do the best one can. You may get some marks for a very imperfect answer: you will certainly get none for leaving the question alone. C. S. Lewis |