Quote:
Originally Posted by DvlshAngel985  From Article:
Maybe I understood it wrong, but it is my understanding there was no original sale because the company KG.com CANCELLED said sale. Of which they would then have no ground on to proceed with:
How can the company then claim they can "fine" the couple if the company was the one that cancelled the sale? On what grounds? I understand KG sent a bill for a "fine" and then reported the "fine" to the credit bureu and a collection agency. But again I ask, on what grounds can they, (KG.com) fine the couple when the couple didn't violate any terms of their agreement. The company forfeited the sale. Why don't they fine themselves for violating the terms of the original agreement? The agreement being, Customer gives $$ to company, which company accepts in return for goods. No goods delivered, money returned with no explanation (just bad customer service), original agreement hence was broken by the company. |
Right, the original transaction was never completed because the company failed to deliver the goods. The bogus fine was for "disparaging" the company's reputation (by leaving a legitimate review), which was against the company's terms.
The couple said this was not part of the terms when they made the purchase. Even if it was in there, that is ridiculous. I don't see how this would stand up to any law or consumer protection thingies.