[Wylie's Mom]

Very interesting, thanks! So --

p.10 "Most noninfectious vaccines require at least two initial doses to immunize, regardless of the dog's age. The first does of a noninfectious vaccine generally primes the immune response and the second dose, which should be administered 2-6 weeks later, provides the protective immune response. Immunity typically develops approximately 7 days after the second dose. Therefore, the minimum time for onset of immunity is approximately 3 wk after administration of the first dose of a noninfectious vaccine"

p. 12 "Because dogs older than 14-16 wk of age are not likely to have interfering levels of MDA [maternally derived antibodies], administration of a single initial dose of an infectious vaccine to an adult dog can be expected to induce a protective immune response. ..... MDA is the most common reason early vaccination fails to immunize."

....looking at these 2 items, what would be preferred? I mean, people could still do young pup vaccines -- or, they could wait for all vax until 16wks when the MDA is gone (which on the face of it, I'd prefer, personally). Does Schultz or anyone lean one way or another? Or is it based on safety of individual pups' environment etc?